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[Veronica Villineaux]

who would own computer generated music if the user of the generation program had ZERO creative input. Just a one button "create random song" to click?

It is looking like as long as there is any creative input, the owner is the user.

Is there a case for the sofware owner in the case where the user is totally out of the creative process?

If the same program created the same songs by itself and just allowed the user to download them, whould that make a difference?

[veronica_villineaux]

turns out the few leading cases tend towards the user.

If there is ~any~ creative involvement by the user and little or no portions of the generating program's copyrighted material in it, then it belongs to the user or the user's employer.

If no user create involvement or the music has significant amounts of copyrighted material from the generating function, then the programmer or his/her employer probably own it.

This is, ofcourse, if no contract specifies.

It's no wonder nobody here knew the answer since this stuff is so new. As a programmer working in computer generated works, I was hoping to avoid a day's worth of research but sometimes you just have to do it yourself.

[Jonathan]

Don't assume your research is the final answer. Perhaps no one deemed to answer your question, as you indicate, because it is novel. Therefore, you should not assume it is the law of the land.

[JSonnabend]

Without doing any research into the specific issue, I think your analysis is generally correct based on basic principles of copyright law.  Stated simply, if the user of the software has input nothing, then she has created nothing, and therefore is not an author of anything.  No authorship=no copyright, generally speaking.

- Jeff

[anand kadam]

hello tall me about advantage and disadvantage of computer ganrated music?

[anand kadam]

hello tall me about advantage and disadvantage of computer ganrated music?