35 U.S.C. 102 Conditions for patentability; novelty and loss of right to patent.
A person shall be entitled to a patent unless -
(a) the invention was
known or used by others in this country, or patented or described in a printed publication in this or a foreign country,
before the invention thereof by the applicant for patent, or ...
"One little nit here, however, is that the application/priority date is not necessarily the date at issue, so I wouldn't say that the accused party is out of the woods yet.
In particular, the fact that the accused might have practiced the invention prior to the effective priority date does not clear them of anything, unless the practice amounts to invalidating prior art. "
Just wondering what is meant by 'invalidating prior art' with regards to a trade secret, if the use was before invention conception. Don't have many facts here, however, it's possible that the prov. may not have disclosed (this portion of) the invention because it was just poorly drafted,
or because that portion of the invention was not really conceived yet, and was later added to the non-prov. to try to capture an infringer. Again, we have very little facts/circumstances here.
If the other party can
show that they were using or had known of the invention prior to the Non-prov., but after the non-enabling provisional, it would seem that at that stage, they are safe under 102 (a), wouldn't it? Or has "known" and "in use" been interpreted by the courts to mean "known in public" or "clearly used in public". Perhaps the 102 (a) provision can only be used to invalidate a patent before issuance? Now it seems that your company will have to show that they conceived the invention prior to the other Companies first use/knowledge (even if it's with a combo of lab notebooks and the provisional). (this was really not a part of the original post, as that dealt with possible fraud, and I have assumed a lot here, but no information seemed to have been present either way, so thought I'd bring it up.)
"I was under the impression there was some kind of doctrine of prior user rights. That if a company has been using the patented method, but such use does not fall under 102, that company is provided some kind of indemnity." In a sense, there is, isn't there? That is, absent provisional rights, a patent is not enforceable until issuance, and then not retroactively. However, it is still enforceable for the x years after the patent issued, provided it is not found invalid/unenforceable).
Going to get my flame-retardant suit...
