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prior use question[ Follow Ups ] [ Post Followup ] [ Trademark Forum ] [ FAQ ] Posted by Melissa on July 19, 2001 at 16:24:46:
I realize this is a tough question to answer in the abstract, but here goes: I understand an owner of a registered trademark cannot generally stop the use of a confusingly similar mark if the similar mark proves a "prior and consistent use" in the market in question. What if the prior user makes significant changes to the style and display of his mark (but not the words of the mark)? Has he jeopardized his "prior use" defense? Does it matter if the style changes increase the level of confusion? If so, would the court likely just make the prior user revert to his previous style of mark or would he conceivably lose all his prior use defenses?
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