Posted by A Martinez on March 29, 1998 at 18:23:33:
The following is a rel case:
A country has given a trademark to a good manufactured in the country, and the trade mark has a name plus de name of the country where the product is manufactured; a different country -read US- has given that same trademark to a different person. ; both peope agreed that the product can only be manufactured in the original country, but the distribution rights of the product are given to the second.
Question: If in the fututre both parties were to break business , could the US party decide to manufacture the product in the US ,but would they not be infringing onthe other countries rights on the mark?