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Public use of a non-disclosed invention as prior art.


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Posted by Kyle Radek on January 05, 2000 at 07:44:36:

It is my understanding that selling a product made by an invention is deemed to be a "public use" of the invention and therefore would be considered prior art against a patent application for the same invention (regardless of who applies)if the product was sold at least one year prior to the patent application (under Title 35, Section 102 b, USC).

Questions:
1. Is this an accurate interpretation of the code?
2. Must the inventor be the one making / selling product using the invention to be considered a "public use" of the invention?
3. What if the inventor assigns patent rights to the company he/she works for and the company sells product using the invention? Is this still considered "public use"?
4. Can an invention developed and used by a company as a trade secret to make product which is sold for more than 1 year be patented by someone else, preventing the company from using their own trade secret?


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