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Public use of a non-disclosed invention as prior art.[ Follow Ups ] [ Post Followup ] [ Patent Forum ] [ FAQ ] Posted by Kyle Radek on January 05, 2000 at 07:44:36: It is my understanding that selling a product made by an invention is deemed to be a "public use" of the invention and therefore would be considered prior art against a patent application for the same invention (regardless of who applies)if the product was sold at least one year prior to the patent application (under Title 35, Section 102 b, USC). Questions:
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